The underage issue 'debunked' (as far as the 1940s are concerened)
I got this from a website found on google (it's very similiar to what other posters stated on a similiar thread about underage sex):
"Paedophilla, on the other hand, was not that around which individual and collective identity and community building took place. There were no wide spread campaigns (until the 1960s and 1970s) for decriminalising intergenerational sex or for abolishing the age of consent; or at least, there were no campaigns waged in the name of the 'paedophile', And there were no apparent subcultural networks of individuals and groups who were united around the singularity of a paedophilic desire. Doctors came across very few cases of exclusive paedophilic desire and few individuals openly or willingly identified themselves in these or any other similar terms."
So while I appreciate the concerns of people re: this issue (I taught High School Health Ed), you HAVE to take into consideration that the film took place in 1942. Until as recently as the early 1900s, men could legally marry teenage girls (or teenage boys would marry teenage girls, which under current law, sex isn't necessarily criminal, marriage or not - esp. if very close in age, eg. 18 vs. 16).