MovieChat Forums > Jesus of Nazareth (1977) Discussion > Pontius Pilate was real--the coins exist...

Pontius Pilate was real--the coins exist to prove it


Among other records.

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. . . Including mentions by Tacitus and Josephus.

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Some have charged that any favorable or corraborative statements to Christianity that can now be found in today's editions of Josephus' writings were interpolated by Christian scribes somewhere down the line, in the effort to validate the Christian religion. I think that is possible and even likely. I find the writings of Josephus more reliable when he covers Old Testament history and his own experiences with Rome and his having been present during the Roman seige of Jerusalem circa A.D. 70.

Tacitus, however, is harder to argue against as a source that validates the existence of a Pontius Pilate as a Roman procurator of Judea.

And then, a quick Goodgle search can yield results like THIS:

http://www.independent.co.uk/news/people/historical-notes-pontius-pilate-a-name-set-in-stone-1084786.html


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Hi vinidici! Long time no talk to.

Some of what you say is true . . . however:

The passages I mention (there are two) are in Jewish Antiquities with the longer of the two called the Testimonium Flavianum. The shorter, and second (Book 20), mentions Jesus only incidentally as the better-known brother of James about whom the passage is written. Since Josephus was anti-Christian he refers to Jesus as "Jesus who is called Messiah". He mentions Jesus in order to clarify which James (also a very common name then) he is referring to. The longer and first (Book 18) passage is more explicit about the events surrounding Jesus' death. This is the one in which Pilate is mentioned and implies his ordering the execution. Tacitus (also an anti-Christian writer) alone states the execution was by crucifixion. As you point out, most scholars accept that portions of the first Josephus passage (originally all in Greek) are interpolations by later Christian writers, because those portions are different in style from Josephus' own work in the rest of the passage and in others of his compositions, and they are clearly pro-Christian mentions (Josephus was certainly not "pro"). But very few scholars believe that the entire passage is a forgery, nor do they believe that it is entirely Josephus.

Best

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As you point out, most scholars accept that portions of the first Josephus passage (originally all in Greek) are interpolations by later Christian writers, because those portions are different in style from Josephus' own work in the rest of the passage and in others of his compositions, and they are clearly pro-Christian mentions (Josephus was certainly not "pro"). But very few scholars believe that the entire passage is a forgery, nor do they believe that it is entirely Josephus.


I'm not clear on where we part company, based on what you said above.

Great to chat with you again, too, btw, Cwente. 

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vinidici,

Read your post again, and you're quite right, we don't seem to "part company" anywhere. Don't know what I was thinking (probably that "age thing")! Sorry my friend, and --

Best, as always!

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Realistically, for argument's sake, how stupid would "forgers" of the New Testament have to be to make up fictitious characters in their zealous endeavor to see their message embraced by New Testament readers? If they were intelligent and educated enough to be literate (since mythical scribes are accused by skeptics of making up the NT wholy out of cloth), why would they invent nonexistent Roman government authority figures like Pilate that their contempories could easily refute?

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Since Josephus was anti-Christian

Wherever do you get the idea that Josephus was anti-Christian? There's no indication that there were any Christians in existence in the 1st century for Josephus to have an opinion about (the two 4th century interpolations into the text of Josephus don't count). It's more a case of a later religious movement inserting references to itself into the historical text.
The longer and first (Book 18) passage is more explicit about the events surrounding Jesus' death. This is the one in which Pilate is mentioned and implies his ordering the execution. Tacitus (also an anti-Christian writer) alone states the execution was by crucifixion.

The Testimonium reads as a highly compact creedal summary of the gospels (particularly Luke), upon which it depends. As such, it cannot be broken up into smaller, ostensibly less Christian fragments; as the more overtly anachronistic portions are removed, what remains cannot reasonably be justified as comprising a coherent passage original to Josephus.

Ken Olson has demonstrated that the passage is Eusebian in its language, and since it was first attested by Eusebius, who better to have authored the passage. And in Richard Carrier's book On the Historicity of Jesus: Why We Might Have Reason for Doubt, he does an in-depth analysis of both the Testimonium and the so-called Jamesian Reference, dispelling any notion that they were original to Antiquities.

http://freethoughtblogs.com/carrier/archives/7437

Regarding the Tacitus passage, you are aware that nobody ever quoted it or otherwise attested to its existence prior to the point it 'turned up' in a Medicean manuscript in the 16th century, right?
But very few scholars believe that the entire passage is a forgery

Until recently, relatively few scholars have lacked a need to salvage something - anything - from the passage in the way of extra-biblical corroboration for Jesus.

§ "Precisely the point of a lonnnng dinin' table."

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I don't think anyone disputes the existence of Pontius Pilate. Besides, the Pilate-related coins (and other records) only attest to Pilate's historicity - not that of Jesus.

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Hanslick,

. . . But, Pilate's existence plays an important role in the historicity of Jesus: In both Tacitus' (Annals) and Josephus' (Jewish Antiquities) accounts, Pilate was governor at the time of Jesus' execution in Judea during Tiberius' reign as emperor (and, according to Josephus, that his execution was by crucifixion). Josephus also informs us his personal name was "Jesus". The Romans called him by Christus and he was referred to as Christos in the Greek translations. The Romans (Tacitus), were unaware that "Christus" was a title (Messiah) and not a personal name.

Those and a very few other ancient (almost contemporary) sources are by people who "despised" Christianity at the time. Perhaps the best argument for the historicity of Jesus of Nazareth is the fact that these despisers didn't use what would easily have been their best argument against the new religion -- that its founder never existed at all. At the time these men wrote, Roman records (and some personal memories) would have been available to prove the assertion. But, the argument was never advanced by any of them.

The vast majority of scholars do not doubt the historicity of Jesus. The tiny minority are, however, very vocal in their opposition.

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I don't think anyone disputes the existence of Pontius Pilate. Besides, the Pilate-related coins (and other records) only attest to Pilate's historicity - not that of Jesus.


In all fairness, those who dispute the existence of Jesus really ought to dispute the existence of Pontius Pilate far more, since there is much less evidence Pilate existed (let alone what he got up to in his lifetime) than Jesus.

While one could argue that the Book of Revelation is an iffy way to confirm Jesus' existence, the rest of the New Testament is pretty conclusive proof that a Jewish teacher named Jesus lived c.4BCE-30CE and that his followers very quickly came to believe that he had risen from the dead (how long it took them to believe he was the Son of God, and how contemporary the belief in his being the Messiah was with his lifetime, is actually a good bit more controversial and complicated).

Why is it reasonably conclusive proof? Because of the Gospels? Well, they're good, but they're not the best proof. We don't know for certain when they were written, though the general consensus is that the first three (the Synoptic Gospels) were all written by the end of the first century and were based on a very early lost gospel that was written around ten years after Jesus' death. So, that's pretty early. We also have very early copies of these gospels, as well as lost gospels. Similarly, the Epistles, which date to the 50s (and are cited by Christian authors along with the Gospels as early as 110) appear in the earliest versions of the New Testament (c.200). Paul is an important source because while he apparently never met Jesus, he was a younger contemporary and would most certainly have known beyond reasonable doubt whether or not Jesus had truly existed.

In contrast, look at Tacitus' biography of his father-in-law Gnaeus Julius Agricola. There is little doubt that Agricola existed, since we have archaeological evidence of him from his conquest of Britain. However, most of what we know of him comes from Tacitus and the earliest surviving manuscripts of his work date to the 9th century, though most are Renaissance era, all well within the Christian era, and subject to copy errors and glosses, just like Tacitus or Josephus' comments on Jesus. Now apply the same criteria for existence, let alone accuracy, applied to the New Testament by the skeptics to Agricola...well, I trust you can see the problem here.

Innsmouth Free Press http://www.innsmouthfreepress.com

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In all fairness, those who dispute the existence of Jesus really ought to dispute the existence of Pontius Pilate far more, since there is much less evidence Pilate existed (let alone what he got up to in his lifetime) than Jesus.

It makes a difference what one calls "evidence." There's corroboration for the existence of Pontius Pilate which doesn't depend upon the hagiographical tales of a religious sect written decades to centuries later. There's nothing like that for Jesus.
We don't know for certain when they were written, though the general consensus is that the first three (the Synoptic Gospels) were all written by the end of the first century and were based on a very early lost gospel that was written around ten years after Jesus' death.

What you term "the general consensus" is drastically skewed towards theologians and seminarians, who comprise the vast majority of biblical studies, and who need to believe the gospels were eyewitness accounts. If one takes an actual university course on the New Testament, though, that's among the first ideas that get exploded.

Critical studies suggest that the earliest gospel, Mark, has a terminus a quo of 135 CE, the point at which one could see "the abomination of the desolation, standing where it should not" (13:14; Hadrian's statue of Jupiter, standing on the site of the former Jerusalem temple). Subsequent gospels were based upon the text of Mark, and were written during subsequent decades.
We also have very early copies of these gospels, as well as lost gospels. Similarly, the Epistles, which date to the 50s (and are cited by Christian authors along with the Gospels as early as 110) appear in the earliest versions of the New Testament (c.200).

The earliest New Testament manuscripts date from the 4th century.

Your argument regarding the epistles follows chains of reasoning dependent upon Christian claims (such as the notion that Ignatius a) actually quotes the gospels, b) actually existed and was not himself the product of later hagiographical embellishment on the part of the Church.

The New Testament epistles are all pseudepigrapha, bearing the names of hagiographical figure like 'Peter' and 'Paul' in order to give them authority. All are patchwork compositions, the work of many different hands, representing different points of view in the history of early Christianity. In their earliest layers of strata, what they convey about Christ doesn't match what's commonly held of Jesus; they are not the same character. One only gets that impression by harmonizing the various texts, and ignoring the fact that they represent different authors with different points of view.

§ "Precisely the point of a lonnnng dinin' table."

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"It makes a difference what one calls evidence."

Quite true, but it's important to note that besides archaeological evidence (rare for anyone who allegedly existed two thousand years ago), there is literary evidence. Our conclusions about "who" an individul was depends more upon this kind of evidence than it depends upon the former (Eg., Homer, Socrates, etc.).

Additionally, you refer to the nature of Jesus primarily, not so much his existence in your criticism. And, as far as I know, we know very little of Pilate's nature but a great deal more of Jesus' nature (from a point very near the time of Jesus death). After all, a major world religion does, in fact, exist based upon the existence of its founder. That makes for a whole lot of evidence and is, imo, the principle reason very, very few scholars doubt that Jesus of Nazareth existed. Not to mention, the principle critics of that religion (Tacitus, Josephus), and from a time which would have had access to official documents, never claimed the man himself never existed, which would have been their most potent argument against the faith they so despised.

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It makes a difference what one calls "evidence." There's corroboration for the existence of Pontius Pilate which doesn't depend upon the hagiographical tales of a religious sect written decades to centuries later. There's nothing like that for Jesus.


There is a single inscription referring to someone whom archaeologists identify as Pontius Pilate and that *appears* to be authentic, as well as a few coins that could have been faked (that kind of thing has happened before). In light of the number of fake artifacts that have popped up in Palestine over the years, it's hardly a given that a few artifacts are 100% proof of his existence, let alone that he is anything like the character described in the New Testament. Try again.

In contrast, there are *numerous* writings and artifacts that have been reliably dated back to the first and second centuries that confirm Christians existed at this time and that they firmly believed Christ existed. There are even some who were contemporaneous with him. You can't disprove them all.

What you term "the general consensus" is drastically skewed towards theologians and seminarians, who comprise the vast majority of biblical studies, and who need to believe the gospels were eyewitness accounts. If one takes an actual university course on the New Testament, though, that's among the first ideas that get exploded.


Delusional conspiracy theorists and atheists with axes to grind are not mainstream.

By the way, I've had an actual university course on the NT and no, the teacher did not try to claim that Christ didn't exist based on the reality that the Gospels were not eyewitness histories. In fact, if you had taken such a course that was any good--and had paid attention--you would have learned that the Gospels were never intended to be histories, but were, quite literally, intended as Christian propaganda, "good news" about Jesus, and had a strongly oral element of stories passed around before any of them were written down. If the only evidence remaining of Alcoholics Anonymous two thousand years from now were the testimonials people gave of how AA helped them get clean, that still wouldn't be a good argument that AA did *not* exist.

Critical studies suggest that the earliest gospel, Mark, has a terminus a quo of 135 CE, the point at which one could see "the abomination of the desolation, standing where it should not" (13:14; Hadrian's statue of Jupiter, standing on the site of the former Jerusalem temple). Subsequent gospels were based upon the text of Mark, and were written during subsequent decades.


I'm sure you won't mind citing those "critical studies," then. And I'm sure you'll have a perfectly good explanation for why our surviving manuscripts of Tacitus and Josephus should get a free pass when they are much later and could easily have been glossed or even completely made up in parts. Also, while Mark is considered the earliest of the surviving canonical Gospels, the lost "Q" Gospel is considered to be another source for the other two Synoptic Gospels, and some have argued that the heretical Gospel of Thomas was created even earlier.

The earliest New Testament manuscripts date from the 4th century.


This, of course, is a complete load of handwaving codswallop and obfuscation. The Gospels first appear in fragmentary form, and as quotations, in the early 2nd century, and are dated to the 1st century. We know for a fact they exist that early on, as well as a bunch of Gospels now rejected as heretical, because early 2nd century Christian writers like Irenaeus talk about both and quote from them.

The New Testament epistles are all pseudepigrapha, bearing the names of hagiographical figure like 'Peter' and 'Paul' in order to give them authority.


So, what? For all we know, neither Tacitus nor Josephus wrote the works attributed to them, either. The works still exist.

All are patchwork compositions, the work of many different hands, representing different points of view in the history of early Christianity.


This can apply to a lot of non-Christian sources of the time as well, like Josephus.

In their earliest layers of strata, what they convey about Christ doesn't match what's commonly held of Jesus; they are not the same character. One only gets that impression by harmonizing the various texts, and ignoring the fact that they represent different authors with different points of view.


Again, so what? The argument here is whether or not Jesus existed, not what kind of person he was. It is hardly earthshaking news to mainstream biblical scholars that Christians had major early debates about Jesus and his true nature, whether or not he was the Son of God, whether he was human or divine, who was the Son of Man, and so on.

It does not change the fact that Roman writers discussed the persecution of Christians (i.e., followers of Christ) quite matter-of-factly as early as Nero's persecution shortly after Rome burned in 64 CE, a mere 34 years after Jesus' crucifixion, and to those hostile sources, the question of whether Jesus existed was a non-issue. As cfwente points out, claiming he never existed would have been an easy way to seek to discredit the Christians, but writers like Tacitus and Suetonius and Josephus didn't even bother.

Innsmouth Free Press http://www.innsmouthfreepress.com

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There is a single inscription referring to someone whom archaeologists identify as Pontius Pilate and that *appears* to be authentic, as well as a few coins that could have been faked (that kind of thing has happened before). In light of the number of fake artifacts that have popped up in Palestine over the years, it's hardly a given that a few artifacts are 100% proof of his existence, let alone that he is anything like the character described in the New Testament. Try again.

Weird. I've no idea what you're trying to argue - certainly nothing apropos what I said. I never sought to claim that Pilate was anything like the character described in the New Testament; I merely noted that there's fairly solid evidence, both literary and archaeological, that he existed.
In contrast, there are *numerous* writings and artifacts that have been reliably dated back to the first and second centuries that confirm Christians existed at this time and that they firmly believed Christ existed. There are even some who were contemporaneous with him. You can't disprove them all.

Such as?
Delusional conspiracy theorists and atheists with axes to grind are not mainstream.

Christian fundamentalists say much the same thing about modern science, i.e. evolution, common descent, abiogenesis, global warming, etc. It doesn't much matter what they think.

In anyone's hands, it's a fallacious argument.
By the way, I've had an actual university course on the NT and no, the teacher did not try to claim that Christ didn't exist based on the reality that the Gospels were not eyewitness histories.

Well, there's a shift in the goalposts if ever there was one! 

All I said was that university courses explode the believers' notion that the gospels are eyewitness accounts, period. This was specifically with reference to appeals to "general consensus."
In fact, if you had taken such a course that was any good--and had paid attention--you would have learned that the Gospels were never intended to be histories, but were, quite literally, intended as Christian propaganda, "good news" about Jesus...

Whatever the intent, it still offers nothing concrete in evidence for the existence of Jesus.
...and had a strongly oral element of stories passed around before any of them were written down.

'Oral tradition' is something that has been proposed (largely by conservative scholars attempting to bridge the decades-to-a-century-long gap between the ostensible time of Jesus and when the gospels were composed or manuscript fragments dated), but cannot be demonstrated. It is always an unevidenced form of special pleading.

http://www.robertmprice.mindvendor.com/art_place.htm
If the only evidence remaining of Alcoholics Anonymous two thousand years from now were the testimonials people gave of how AA helped them get clean, that still wouldn't be a good argument that AA did *not* exist.

An inappropriate comparison, since AA is a group, not a supposed person of whom fabulous supernatural tales are averred.
I'm sure you won't mind citing those "critical studies," then.

Sure thing.
http://www.preteristarchive.com/Books/pdf/2000_detering_synoptic-apocalypse.pdf
http://michaelturton2.blogspot.com/2005/05/was-detering-right-about-date-of-mark_22.html
http://vridar.org/2007/02/10/little-apocalypse-and-the-bar-kochba-revolt/
And I'm sure you'll have a perfectly good explanation for why our surviving manuscripts of Tacitus and Josephus should get a free pass when they are much later and could easily have been glossed or even completely made up in parts.

Where have I offered that "our surviving manuscripts of Tacitus and Josephus should get a free pass"? 

As it happens, they were glossed and even completely made up in parts.
Also, while Mark is considered the earliest of the surviving canonical Gospels, the lost "Q" Gospel is considered to be another source for the other two Synoptic Gospels, and some have argued that the heretical Gospel of Thomas was created even earlier.

Many scholars no longer rely upon a postulated "Q" gospel to explain the non-Markan Synoptic material. As for Thomas, it's generally dated to the mid-second century.
This, of course, is a complete load of handwaving codswallop and obfuscation. The Gospels first appear in fragmentary form, and as quotations, in the early 2nd century, and are dated to the 1st century. We know for a fact they exist that early on, as well as a bunch of Gospels now rejected as heretical, because early 2nd century Christian writers like Irenaeus talk about both and quote from them.

I should have said that the earliest complete New Testament manuscript date to the 4th century. Tiny fragments of some NT texts have been dated to the mid-to-late 2nd century, although as always, believing scholars would like to make out that they're earlier.

The problem with citing Irenaeus or other early patristic sources is that those works generally do not independently survive except as quotations, usually in Eusebius, who constitutes the bottleneck for pretty much all pre-Nicene works. And the manuscripts of Eusebius are 10th century and later, leaving plenty of room for doubt that even his works are untampered. A lot of traditionalist or conservative scholars like to cite Irenaeus, Clement, Justin, Polycarp, etc., etc., without ever realizing the issues with transmission and reliability of these works. Conclusions can only tentatively be drawn from them, depending upon the purported author; patristic sources are not all equal, with certain of them (like Ignatius of Antioch) being entirely fabricated from whole cloth and worthless as testimony.
So, what? For all we know, neither Tacitus nor Josephus wrote the works attributed to them, either. The works still exist... This can apply to a lot of non-Christian sources of the time as well, like Josephus.

It makes a difference what was added and when. The two Christian references in the works of Josephus do not antedate the 4th century, and current scholarship holds that they were added by Eusebius. The relevant volume of Tacitus's Annals, 15:44, was unknown and unattested prior to the 16th century, when a single pair of Medicean manuscripts turned up in the Laurentian Library in Florence, Italy, dating to the 11th century.
Again, so what? The argument here is whether or not Jesus existed, not what kind of person he was.

Right. There's no relevant evidence that he did.
It is hardly earthshaking news to mainstream biblical scholars that Christians had major early debates about Jesus and his true nature, whether or not he was the Son of God, whether he was human or divine, who was the Son of Man, and so on.

Sure, from the 2nd century onward. It seriously picked up in the 4th century.
It does not change the fact that Roman writers discussed the persecution of Christians (i.e., followers of Christ) quite matter-of-factly as early as Nero's persecution shortly after Rome burned in 64 CE, a mere 34 years after Jesus' crucifixion, and to those hostile sources, the question of whether Jesus existed was a non-issue.

There are issues with those Roman authors, with specific texts. The problem is mainly exclusive Christian transmission, and the fact that they're unattested, even by Eusebius who, had such been available in his time, would have abundantly commented on them.
As cfwente points out, claiming he never existed would have been an easy way to seek to discredit the Christians, but writers like Tacitus and Suetonius and Josephus didn't even bother.

Poor cfwente - he seems to labor under the misimpression that Tacitus and Josephus actually made "potent argument against the faith they so despised," when the best evidence suggests they did not. Josephus neither knew nor heard of Christians - both passages in Antiquities are 4th century Christian interpolations. The same would appear to be the case with Tacitus Annals 15:44, but from even later.

http://www.truthbeknown.com/pliny.htm

§ "Precisely the point of a lonnnng dinin' table."

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A short response from "poor" me:

I haven't the energy (or patience) to provide details beyond that which I've already posted on this thread. Suffice it to say, then, that re Grazie's final paragraph -- he's simply wrong (beside his having quoted me wrong), as he is elsewhere earlier in the post.

First, what he calls "critical studies" do not include the arguments of Hermann Detering (which he links), who has resurrected the late 19th century positions of the Dutch school of radical criticism re the canonical Gospels and the authorship of Paul of Tarsus of much of it, among other things. This is interesting stuff and worth a look but clearly out of the mainstream of both Biblical and historical scholarly criticism.

Second, to find out what is generally regarded as extra-biblical affirmation of the historicity of Jesus, I would recommend:

Robert Van Voorst's Jesus Outside the New Testament. This huge collection includes the writings (with expert translations) of exra-biblical offerings from Tacitus, Josephus (including commentaries re later additions and/or forgeries to the original texts acknowledged to be by Josephus himself), Pliny the Younger, Celsus, Suetonius, Thallos, Serapon, Lucian of Samosata, and several Rabbinic traditions. The book is HEAVILY documented and also includes much information re source materials for the canonical gospels.

Additionally, I'd suggest Steve Mason's (prof. of history & Canada Research Chair in Greco-Roman Cultural Interaction @ York University, Toronto) Josephus and the New Testament if you want to know more about the entire catalogue of Josephus' output (necessary to understanding individual passages and their "logical" connection with one another and the historical Jesus). Prof. Mason is the General Editor of the twelve volume series -- Flavius Josephus - Translation and Commentary.

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A short response from "poor" me:

I haven't the energy (or patience) to provide details beyond that which I've already posted on this thread. Suffice it to say, then, that re Grazie's final paragraph -- he's simply wrong (beside his having quoted me wrong), as he is elsewhere earlier in the post.

Yes, "poor" you. (Whatever happened to your older "cwente" identity?)

In replying to me, you speak of me in the second person, as if to someone else. If that was intended to be thesnowleopard, you should have clicked 'reply' on his post, not mine.

You said this to me back on June 26:
Not to mention, the principle critics of that religion (Tacitus, Josephus), and from a time which would have had access to official documents, never claimed the man himself never existed, which would have been their most potent argument against the faith they so despised.

Of this statement I said, "Poor cfwente - he seems to labor under the misimpression that Tacitus and Josephus actually made "potent argument against the faith they so despised," when the best evidence suggests they did not. Josephus neither knew nor heard of Christians - both passages in Antiquities are 4th century Christian interpolations. The same would appear to be the case with Tacitus Annals 15:44, but from even later."

I didn't quote you wrong, or misunderstand you.
First, what he calls "critical studies" do not include the arguments of Hermann Detering (which he links), who has resurrected the late 19th century positions of the Dutch school of radical criticism re the canonical Gospels and the authorship of Paul of Tarsus of much of it, among other things. This is interesting stuff and worth a look but clearly out of the mainstream of both Biblical and historical scholarly criticism.

Yes, Hermann Detering and the Dutch Radicals constitute "critical studies," as opposed to apologetical studies intended for the consumption of believers and the edification of their faith (like theologian Robert Van Voorst's output). The work of the Tübingen school of higher criticism, along with the Dutch Radicals, was never answered by the more recent "mainstream of both Biblical and historical scholarly criticism," as you term it. Rather, the "mainstream" scholars have largely preferred to do with them precisely as you've done with the sources I offered on the dating of Mark - brush it aside as being too old (like your own reference to the 19th century - funny, that: German higher criticism is too old to be considered, but not nearly as old as the biblical texts and traditional Church positions maximalists prefer to support), or the self-serving argument that it's not what the majority have decided to settle upon.

I don't think that Steve Mason's Josephus and the New Testament, originally published in 1992, would offer much bearing on the issue of the Testimonia Flaviana that hasn't been superceded by more recent scholarship by Ken Olson and others (although I suspect Mason's work isn't as helpful to the apologetical position as you suppose).

http://chs.harvard.edu/CHS/article/display/5871

§ "Precisely the point of a lonnnng dinin' table."

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A couple of points:

Re your "second person" remarks -- sometimes I get confused as to who I'm actually talking to on these threads. Generally, my comments are intended to make a point to anyone glancing through the array of comments available. Thus, the second person. Apparently, you got the gist, so ... Anyway, thanks for the reminder about how to work the system here.

Re Tacitus and Josephus, the material passages are not among those considered to be the ones tampered with by latter day Christian translators. They don't sound at all like other passages which may have been (rather obviously) tampered with according to an overwhelming majority of scholars. Yes, a "majority" doesn't make for the "right" interpretation. But, since we're concerned about probabilities (via language, style, and sentiment) rather than certainties in such examinations, the number who believe A rather than B has a bearing. Eg., if you invite four qualified doctors to examine a pain in your stomach and three of them tell you you have a tumor and the fourth says you merely have indigestion, do you simply say "thanks" and rush out to buy a bottle of Tums?

I never brush anything aside for its being old. I didn't do that here. I merely pointed out that it's been around a long time -- but that it's worth a look.

"Despised" is more accurately applied to Tacitus than Josephus, true. But, given Josephus' long-term advocacy for the philosophies and wisdom of Judaism among the Romans, it's unlikely he was a fan of Christianity -- whatever he knew about it. And, he probably did know of its existence as demonstrated by his incidental comments relating to the "James" he discusses in Book 20 of Antiquities.

Btw, what is this "best evidence" that provides you with the 'certainty' that Josephus "never knew or heard of Christians", or that Tacitus didn't make an argument against them? Tacitus does so in his biography of Nero in Annals, translated from the Latin by Van Voorst. It's written in Tacitus' precise and unambiguous style and rife with contempt for those this most careful of Rome's historians called "Chrestians".

How do you know that the conclusions of Van Voorst and others are based upon a preconceived agenda -- and the minimalists' are not?

Finally, are you suggesting that Mason's Josephus is "old" and, therefore, should be "brushed aside"?

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