MovieChat Forums > The Lord of the Rings: The Return of the King (2003) Discussion > Why did flashback Sméagol have the same ...

Why did flashback Sméagol have the same voice as present day Gollum?

posted 3 years ago by TMC-4 (19563)
4 replies | jump to latest

Would it have better illustrated his descent into madness, and been better storytelling, by him having a normal human/hobbit voice in the flashback?

https://www.reddit.com/r/movies/comments/l74bwx/in_the_lord_of_the_rings_the_return_of_the_king/

[–] ShitakiMushroom (200) 3 years ago

Ha ha, for sure! That always takes me out of the movie a bit.
Anyone know if it was written in the book that way? I get that it may not have been mentioned though. I'll get around to reading the book one day but haven't gotten around to it yet.

[–] DMT (4039) a year ago

haha yeah i laughed thinking, poor guy was always fucked

[–] Moonglum9 (10851) 7 months ago

He went from looking like Ozzy to a very old Peter Lorre

[–] Sidha108 (2409) 13 days ago

Perhaps the flashback is supposed to be more of a “dream” with the events being depicted as a condensed version of how they actually occurred and how Gollum sees his past self in his own mind.